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Why . . . ? vs. Why is it that . . . ? - English Language Usage Stack . . . I see a subtle difference, which might be more obvious to anyone into Systems Thinking or NLP The first has a more passive meaning, in that it implies that a cause exists for everybody's desire to help, without specifying where that cause exists The second implies that the cause lies with everybody You can see this more clearly if you use an
Contextual difference between That is why vs Which is why? You never know, which is why but You never know That is why And goes on to explain: There is a subtle but important difference between the use of that and which in a sentence, and it has to do primarily with relevance Grammarians often use the terms "restrictive" and "non-restrictive" when it comes to relative clauses
Why it is vs Why is it - English Language Usage Stack Exchange The question form becomes a statement and therefore, the clause must follow the subject + verb rule for a declarative sentence with no subject and verb inversion 2) Please tell me why it is like that [correct] Please tell me why [etc ]is not a question Therefore, it would take no question mark You can see that the first three examples above
grammaticality - Is Why to. . . . . . grammatical? - English Language . . . 8 It’s a headline, first of all, where some grammatical rules are different anyway So this is not a sentence, but a noun phrase: (This section tells you) why to use page-level permissions That is, it tells you why you should use them “Why to…” and “why not to…” are very common in headings to encourage or discourage the reader
tenses - English Language Usage Stack Exchange 1 The modal auxiliary verb would was originally the past tense form of the modal will As such, it has some of the same senses as will, specifically, in this case, that sense of "be willing to" that shows up when will is used in hypothetical clauses: if he will put down the gun, which means if he is willing to put down the gun
Reason for different pronunciations of lieutenant As to why present day usage is as it is: People can be contrary It's possible the US adopted "Loo" because and only because the Brits said "Lef" -- or vice-versa But it seems the answer is not known by the best scholars Oxford can produce
How did the letter Z come to be associated with sleeping snoring? See also Why Does ZZZ mean sleep? for another theory: The reason zzz came into being is that the comic strip artists just couldn’t represent sleeping with much As the sounds made while sleeping are quite difficult to represent with letters, the artists chose zzz, because it best represents the sound
Why does the ending -ough have six pronunciations? According to Wikipedia, there are at least six pronunciations in North American English and ten in British English This same article says that almost every combination originally had the same pronunciation, but then the words evolved Bet one of our linguists will have a good story about this one – Kit Z Fox ♦ Jun 29, 2011 at 0:33
Using hundreds to express thousands: why, where, when? Why change register half way through? [¶ Of course, even in the middle ages, educated professionals such as architects, military engineers and accountants would work to greater precision The Doomsday book (written in mediaeval Latin) has precise census numbers, but these are written in arabic numerals — they are not spelled out
Why do people use all 3 components in their gender pronouns? Why those badges T-shirts are made like that, I don't know -- that's a different question It could be argued that another form, the -self form, should be included (e g himself, herself, xyrself) Then again, it could be argued that not only is that -self form needless, so is the -s form (e g hers)