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One-to-one vs. one-on-one - English Language Usage Stack Exchange One-to-one is used when you talk about transfer or communications You may use one-to-one when you can identify a source and a destination For eg , a one-to-one email is one sent from a single person to another, i e , no ccs or bccs In maths, a one-to-one mapping maps one element of a set to a unique element in a target set One-on-one is the correct adjective in your example See Free
Which vs Which one - English Language Learners Stack Exchange The "one" could imply that of the alternates only ONE choice is possible, or permitted "Which" alone could indicate several choices from the set of alterates could be selected in various combinations Of course, speakers are often very imprecise about their meanings intentions when saying "which" or "which one" Usually the context makes it clear if the choices are mutually exclusive or not
When to use 1 vs. one for technical writing? As @PeterShor points out, in this case "one" is the pronoun, and would never be numeric Beyond that, as a general rule, spell out numbers 1-9, but for technical writing, it may be appropriate to always use the numeric version when you're referring to a numeral (as opposed to the pronoun example above)
Which is correct vs which one is correct? [duplicate] When using the word " which " is it necessary to still use " one " after asking a question or do " which " and " which one " have the same meaning? Where do you draw the line on the difference between " which " and " which one " when asking a question that involves more than one answer?
Is the possessive of one spelled ones or ones? How one and one's is different from other indefinite pronouns The possessive of one (one's) is formed the same way as the possessive of other indefinite pronouns, such as someone (someone's), but it is used a bit differently For most people, one is consistently used with the possessive form one's
verbs - One or both of them has or have? - English Language Learners . . . But actually, one or both of them has already disengaged emotionally from the marriage In this case, 'both of them', a plural form, is closer to the verb 'has', so I thought 'has' was grammatically wrong and the right verb should be 'have' Does a singular verb in such cases sound more natural in speech and writing to native speakers?
There is are more than one. Whats the difference? More than one man is still in the house Could this is be explained by the immediate precedence of one man? It is conceivable that the singular number of one man leads us to an anacoluthon in the next word is: we see a singular number and noun, and we cannot resist the pressure of proceeding with a singular verb
(a one) hundred percent — Is a one always optional here? To my ear, 'one hundred percent' sounds more emphatic than 'a hundred percent', simply because the former feels more deliberately phrased—conveying precisely 100% as opposed to about 100%