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How accurate is the New World Translation bible? No less than four times the NWT adds an unwarranted "other" to the text which is absent in the Greek There are many hundreds more such examples of NWT unwarranted alterations to the text of the NT, but this is not the place for such an extensive discussion See thr appendix below for a brief sample APPENDIX - A Few More NWT "Problems"
Colossians 1:16 New World Translation renders τα πάντα as “all other . . . Inconsistently, the same NWT renders Ephesians 1:10 τα πάντα with “all,” This creates the logical dilemma that all things are gathered in Jesus, who is himself part of these things The Kingdom Interlinear of the NWT translates τα πάντα in Colossians 1:16 with “all things,” so inconsistency also here
textual criticism - How can we understand differences between the NWT . . . New World Translation (NWT) I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem the spirit of favor and supplication, and they will look to the one whom they pierced,+ and they will wail over him as they would wail over an only son; and they will grieve bitterly over him as they would grieve over a firstborn son
greek - Is NWTs translation of John 8:58 reasonable? - Biblical . . . The translation rule advocated by the NWT Study Bible, which states that "ego eimi" (I am) should properly be rendered into idiomatic English as "I have been" whenever this phrase indicates that an action which had started in the past continues on into the present, is ignored on multiple occasions in the NWT of the Holy Scriptures, most
hebrew - How is the New World Translations usage of Jehovah . . . The NWT translators knew about the LXX Fouad 266, a second or first-century B C E Septuagint fragment where God's name occurs 49 times Represented by the Tetragrammaton, written in Hebrew square letters (יהוה) not by χύριος - as later in Christian manuscripts of the Bible
Jehovah in the New Testament - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange The NWT footnote for Mark 13:20 offers an explanation as to why they have replaced ‘Lord’ with ‘Jehovah’ The footnote says "20 - Jehovah, J7, 8, 10, 13, 16-18; the Lord #BA " This indicates that they are claiming manuscript support for 'Jehovah' in Hebrew translations of Mark's gospels, while the # indicates Aleph, the uncial Greek
Is this particular argument, regarding Col 1:16, against the meaning . . . In NWT the use of "all other" four times in Colossians 1 cannot be viewed as bias, and it is not interpolation, since the very words of Colossians 1:15 reveal that Jesus Christ is a part of creation, which then implies the word "other" in these four places At the same spot, he is also called "the image" of God, which means that he is not God
Do the early Coptic translations of John 1:1c prove that and The Word . . . To our ears, this may not sound very Arian-like It definitely does not reflect the NWT, or the current day teachings of the Jehovah’s Witnesses But that does not mean Arius (or other 4th c Arians) could not have still thought this text referred to Christ as God They were quite alright with calling Christ, God
word study - Matthew 16:24 Hebrews 12:2 gt; What are the possible . . . The NWT translation philosophy is consistent with a prohibition of pagan practices such as using the "cross" in worship or as jewelry (which may be an accurate understanding of early Christianity) Translating the word as "stake" eliminates these practices Manuscript Evidence Christian scribes would sometimes use abbreviations
translation philosophy - What is the basis for translating Colossians 1 . . . That additions have been inserted into the English rendition by those producing the NWT is clearly seen in their own Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures (KIT) There the Greek text (of Westcott Hort) is reproduced, with a literal English translation under the Greek In the adjoining column is the NWT English rendition