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What is infinity divided by infinity? - Mathematics Stack Exchange I know that $\\infty \\infty$ is not generally defined However, if we have 2 equal infinities divided by each other, would it be 1? if we have an infinity divided by another half-as-big infinity, for
Uncountable vs Countable Infinity - Mathematics Stack Exchange My friend and I were discussing infinity and stuff about it and ran into some disagreements regarding countable and uncountable infinity As far as I understand, the list of all natural numbers is
Proof of infinite monkey theorem. - Mathematics Stack Exchange The infinite monkey theorem states that if you have an infinite number of monkeys each hitting keys at random on typewriter keyboards then, with probability 1, one of them will type the complete works of William Shakespeare
Can I subtract infinity from infinity? - Mathematics Stack Exchange Can this interpretation ("subtract one infinity from another infinite quantity, that is twice large as the previous infinity") help us with things like limn→∞(1 + x n)n, lim n → ∞ (1 + x n) n, or is it just a parlor trick for a much easier kind of limit?
elementary set theory - What do finite, infinite, countable, not . . . A set A A is infinite, if it is not finite The term countable is somewhat ambiguous (1) I would say that countable and countably infinite are the same That is, a set A A is countable (countably infinite) if there exists a bijection between A A and N N (2) Other people would define countable to be finite or in bijection with N N
What is the difference between infinite and transfinite? The reason being, especially in the non-standard analysis case, that "infinite number" is sort of awkward and can make people think about ∞ ∞ or infinite cardinals somehow, which may be giving the wrong impression But "transfinite number" sends, to me, a somewhat clearer message that there is a particular context in which the term takes place
Infinite Sigma Algebra - Mathematics Stack Exchange Let M M be an infinite sigma algebra on some set X X Show that we can find an infinite sequence of disjoint sets in M M So, there are probably easier ways to go about solving this but I was given a hint to solve it by defining an equivalence relation: for distinct x, y ∈ X x, y ∈ X we define x ∼ y x ∼ y if and only if there exists proper subset E ⊂ X E ⊂ X and E ∈ M E ∈ M