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One-to-one vs. one-on-one - English Language Usage Stack Exchange One-to-one is used when you talk about transfer or communications You may use one-to-one when you can identify a source and a destination For eg , a one-to-one email is one sent from a single person to another, i e , no ccs or bccs In maths, a one-to-one mapping maps one element of a set to a unique element in a target set One-on-one is the correct adjective in your example See Free
Which is correct vs which one is correct? [duplicate] When using the word " which " is it necessary to still use " one " after asking a question or do " which " and " which one " have the same meaning? Where do you draw the line on the difference between " which " and " which one " when asking a question that involves more than one answer?
Which vs Which one - English Language Learners Stack Exchange Recently I've come across sentences that doesn't have "one" in it and it looks like odd to me because I'm used to say "which one ?" The sentences must be correct because they are from a grammar
Use you or one in formal writing? - English Language Usage Stack . . . However, when one uses the word "one", it is as if one is speaking in general terms, not refering to any specified individual It isn't a hard rule that every use of 'you' is writing in the second-person, but rather more a guideline to help a writer avoid overuse of the word 'you'
When to use 1 vs. one for technical writing? I currently am in the middle of a discussion about the proper use for when to use the numeral "1" versus "one" There are two sides to this argument: 1) In technical writing, numerals should alwa
Difference between One to One and One on One one-on-one is used to talk about meetings between two people When there is a discussion we can call it a one-on-one discussion; as an alternative for a face to face confrontation and in interviews (quite often political ones on TV)
grammaticality - Which one is you? vs Which one are you? - English . . . 1 x) Which one will be you? 2 x) Which one will you be? Since the OP's two examples only had a single verb in them ("is" vs "are"), then as to what the subject is will, in this case, depend on the verb that is used -- for the speaker writer will have used subject-verb agreement between the subject and verb So, the answer is: Both are "correct"
Why does one half have no hyphen, but two-thirds does? I often see the fraction ⅔ written with a hyphen, but I never see ½ written with one Is it correct to have the hyphen in two-thirds, and if so why don't we write one-half?