copy and paste this google map to your website or blog!
Press copy button and paste into your blog or website.
(Please switch to 'HTML' mode when posting into your blog. Examples: WordPress Example, Blogger Example)
arithmetic - Formal proof for $(-1) \times (-1) = 1$ - Mathematics . . . The Law of Signs $\rm\: (-x)(-y) = xy\:$ isn't normally assumed as an axiom Rather, it is derived as a consequence of more fundamental Ring axioms $ $ [esp the distributive law $\rm\,x(y+z) = xy + xz\,$], laws which abstract the common algebraic structure shared by familiar number systems
Why is $1^{\\infty}$ considered to be an indeterminate form The indeterminate forms are often abbreviated with stuff like "$1^\infty$" but that's not what they mean This "$1^\infty$" (in regards to indeterminate forms) actually means: when there is an expression that approaches 1 and then it is raised to the power of an expression that approaches infinity we can't determine what happens in that form
Is it true that $0. 999999999\\ldots=1$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange Stack Exchange Network Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers
Proof that $(AA^{-1}=I) \\Rightarrow (AA^{-1} = A^{-1}A)$ Stack Exchange Network Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers
Why is $1 i$ equal to $-i$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange There are multiple ways of writing out a given complex number, or a number in general Usually we reduce things to the "simplest" terms for display -- saying $0$ is a lot cleaner than saying $1-1$ for example
Why is $1$ not a prime number? - Mathematics Stack Exchange actually 1 was considered a prime number until the beginning of 20th century Unique factorization was a driving force beneath its changing of status, since it's formulation is quickier if 1 is not considered a prime; but I think that group theory was the other force
If $A A^{-1} = I$, does that automatically imply $A^{-1} A = I$? A-1 A means that first we apply A transformation then we apply A-1 transformation When we apply A transformation we reach some plane having some different basis vectors but after apply A-1 we again reach to the plane have basis i ^ (0,1) and j ^ (1,0) It means that after applying A-1 we reach to the transformation which does nothing
Double induction example: $ 1 + q + q^2 - Mathematics Stack Exchange Stack Exchange Network Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers