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Why is $1 i$ equal to $-i$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange While 1 i = i−1 1 i = i 1 is true (pretty much by definition), if we have a value c c such that c∗i = 1 c ∗ i = 1 then c= i−1 c = i 1 This is because we know that inverses in the complex numbers are unique
abstract algebra - Prove that 1+1=2 - Mathematics Stack Exchange Possible Duplicate: How do I convince someone that $1+1=2$ may not necessarily be true? I once read that some mathematicians provided a very length proof of $1+1=2$ Can you think of some way to
What is the value of $1^i$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange There are infinitely many possible values for $1^i$, corresponding to different branches of the complex logarithm The confusing point here is that the formula $1^x = 1$ is not part of the definition of complex exponentiation, although it is an immediate consequence of the definition of natural number exponentiation
factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange Intending on marking as accepted, because I'm no mathematician and this response makes sense to a commoner However, I'm still curious why there is 1 way to permute 0 things, instead of 0 ways
If $A A^{-1} = I$, does that automatically imply $A^{-1} A = I$? This is same as AA -1 It means that we first apply the A -1 transformation which will take as to some plane having different basis vectors If we think what is the inverse of A -1 ? We are basically asking that what transformation is required to get back to the Identity transformation whose basis vectors are i ^ (1,0) and j ^ (0,1)
Why is $1^ {\infty}$ considered to be an indeterminate form The reason why $1^\infty$ is indeterminate, is because what it really means intuitively is an approximation of the type $ (\sim 1)^ {\rm large \, number}$ And while $1$ to a large power is 1, a number very close to 1 to a large power can be anything